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Some Jews believed that Jesus was who He claimed to be. There are many interpretations of the verse like it referring to the Holy council in heaven from what I've read, which the Jews were familiar with. But who directed the writers of the scriptures? Just because many did not see references to the Messiah in Genesis , doesn't mean that these didn't point Him...Just my thinking. God bless.
God is one but in 3 persons of the Father, the son Jesus and the Holy Sprit.
Water can be in three elements of a solid, a gas or a liquid, but its still water, so why not the creator of it?
Jews were waiting for a Messiah in the Old Testament, not all rejected Jesus then or now.
Jesus knew from the beginning he would be the perfect sacrifice for our sins, and he was in the Garden of Eden as the Tree of Life
Originally Posted by Timothylogan3 If that is the case was 1 Genesis 26 then translated correctly?
Yes it is translated correctly, as it is written in the Midrash regarding this exact verse...
Whoever wishes to err will err... Instead let them learn from their creator who created all, yet when he came to create Man He took counsel with the ministering angels"... One who sincerely seeks the truth will see it; one who looks for an excuse to blaspheme wiill find it.
Which category of people do you think you fall into?
Yes it is translated correctly, as it is written in the Midrash regarding this exact verse...
Whoever wishes to err will err... Instead let them learn from their creator who created all, yet when he came to create Man He took counsel with the ministering angels"... One who sincerely seeks the truth will see it; one who looks for an excuse to blaspheme wiill find it.
Which category of people do you think you fall into?
So if it is translated correctly how about you give your opinion on the OT instead of calling someone out for their own opinion..
The Trinity is never precisely addressed in either the New or Old testament. Yet, it is delineated throughout the Scriptures, expounding upon it as a revelation.
Jesus, although born of a woman, was always present with the Father and always in existence (JOHN 1:1, JOHN 1:14). Jesus was not a created being. Christ's words state that no one has ever seen nor heard the Father (JOHN 1:18, JOHN 5:37, JOHN 6:46). Being fully aware of the OT Scriptures and acknowledging their authority, He could only have meant that it was He that interacted with man during the times of the Old Testament.
In short, the Hebrew word for God (Elohim) is in fact plural. Being only one true God, this is due to the plurality of His nature. Three parts, distinct in nature and operation, yet one God in substance.
We, in fact, are triune, being composed of mind, body and spirit. So, we are indeed made like Him.
So if it is translated correctly how about you give your opinion on the OT instead of calling someone out for their own opinion..
"Instead let them learn from their creator who created all, yet when he came to create Man He took counsel with the ministering angels"
This opinion is also known as the "royal we" theory which has been the interpretations of Jews for thousands of years.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Scamp
In short, the Hebrew word for God (Elohim) is in fact plural. Being only one true God, this is due to the plurality of His nature. Three parts, distinct in nature and operation, yet one God in substance.
Care to explain why in every instance that Elokim is used a singular verb is also used?
In the Hebrew, Elohim is plural (-im ending). Though sometimes the word refers to the plural (polytheistic notion of multiple gods), throughout the OT, Elohim is used to refer to the One True God of Israel. I believe the plural pronoun, us, is used for emphasis and is grammatically correct.
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If that is the case was 1 Genesis 26 then translated correctly?
