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Old 12-04-2009, 05:51 PM
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I want to hear some of the explanations, by both furturists and Preterists, as to some 'timing verses' in the Bible regarding the Coming of the Lord. Try to keep it focused on the passage that I put up. Stick to explaining the verse without shotgunning a bunch of other Scriptures. I will post my remarks after everyone elses. I will start a new thread for each verse - hence the #1. OK, here is the First Verse:

Matt.10:23 - ‘…For assuredly I say to you, you will not have gone through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes.’
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Old 12-04-2009, 06:32 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Washington
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Shiloh1 View Post
I want to hear some of the explanations, by both furturists and Preterists, as to some 'timing verses' in the Bible regarding the Coming of the Lord. Try to keep it focused on the passage that I put up. Stick to explaining the verse without shotgunning a bunch of other Scriptures. I will post my remarks after everyone elses. I will start a new thread for each verse - hence the #1. OK, here is the First Verse:

Matt.10:23 - ‘…For assuredly I say to you, you will not have gone through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes.’
Well the whole chapter seems to be directed toward the disciples... why would Jesus warn then and instruct them if it wasn't they who would go through the tribulation and see the son of Man coming?
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Old 12-04-2009, 07:12 PM
 
Location: New York City
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Shiloh1 View Post
I want to hear some of the explanations, by both furturists and Preterists, as to some 'timing verses' in the Bible regarding the Coming of the Lord. Try to keep it focused on the passage that I put up. Stick to explaining the verse without shotgunning a bunch of other Scriptures. I will post my remarks after everyone elses. I will start a new thread for each verse - hence the #1. OK, here is the First Verse:

Matt.10:23 - ‘…For assuredly I say to you, you will not have gone through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes.’
I'm not a Christian, but I still prefer to justice done to literature and interpreted as it was meant to be interpreted.

In quite a few threads dealing with the "rapture" and the "second coming" happening any day now, I've thrown out this passage. It is often ignored in pursuit of believing what folks WANT to believe. Oh well.
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Old 12-04-2009, 07:14 PM
 
Location: New York City
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Originally Posted by katjonjj View Post
Well the whole chapter seems to be directed toward the disciples... why would Jesus warn then and instruct them if it wasn't they who would go through the tribulation and see the son of Man coming?
Yet another point I highlight but what do I know, right? I'm a heathen who can't read and comprehend.
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Old 12-04-2009, 08:52 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Washington
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Originally Posted by InsaneInDaMembrane View Post
Yet another point I highlight but what do I know, right? I'm a heathen who can't read and comprehend.
I think you may be right... heathens clearly haven't been taught what it means....
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Old 12-04-2009, 09:04 PM
 
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What did Christ mean in this verse? The fact is at that time the disciples were not yet aware that Christ would be crucified and resurrected. When he said to them that they would not complete the cities of Israel before he came, how could they have understood him to mean his second advent when they themselves were not yet aware that there would be an end to his first advent? Might not have Christ been referring to the month long adventure of the disciples throughout the lands of Israel, and his own coming into Jerusalem, riding on as ass, which did take place not to long thereafter heralding the coming of the king into his kingdom as was prophesied, and not to his coming again after his death and resurrection?

This is how i understand this verse ...

He also might have only been referring to his accompanying them again before they were able to go throughout all the lands of Israel ...

The key to understanding this verse is what Jesus meant when he said "before the son of man comes" ... What is certain is that the disciples would not have understood him to be referring to his return after his death and resurrection.
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Old 12-04-2009, 09:18 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Washington
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Originally Posted by Ironmaw1776 View Post
What did Christ mean in this verse? The fact is at that time the disciples were not yet aware that Christ would be crucified and resurrected. When he said to them that they would not complete the cities of Israel before he came, how could they have understood him to mean his second advent when they themselves were not yet aware that there would be an end to his first advent? Might not have Christ been referring to the month long adventure of the disciples throughout the lands of Israel, and his own coming into Jerusalem, riding on as ass, which did take place not to long thereafter heralding the coming of the king into his kingdom as was prophesied, and not to his coming again after his death and resurrection?

This is how i understand this verse ...

He also might have only been referring to his accompanying them again before they were able to go throughout all the lands of Israel ...

The key to understanding this verse is what Jesus meant when he said "before the son of man comes" ... What is certain is that the disciples would not have understood him to be referring to his return after his death and resurrection.
That may make sense except that Jesus is warning them about something...

Matt 10:15;17 I tell you the truth, it will be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah on the day of judgment than for that town.... Be on your guard against men; they will hand you over to the local councils and flog you in their synagogues.

So obviously they knew about the day of judgment as it was prophesied long before.
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Old 12-04-2009, 09:21 PM
 
Location: New York City
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Originally Posted by Ironmaw1776 View Post
What did Christ mean in this verse? The fact is at that time the disciples were not yet aware that Christ would be crucified and resurrected. When he said to them that they would not complete the cities of Israel before he came, how could they have understood him to mean his second advent when they themselves were not yet aware that there would be an end to his first advent? He might have been referring to the month long adventure of the disciples throughout the Israel, and his own coming into Jerusalem, riding on as ass, which did take place not to long thereafter heralding the coming of the king into his kingdom as was prophesied, and not to his coming again after his death and resurrection ...
I will admit that this might be plausible, however, I have this conspiracy theory in mind which says that that particular verse was added later on, but as I said, conspiracy.

Anyway, there are two things that must be considered here.

1. Jesus speaks of the "spirit of the father" speaking though these Disciples. Some Christians will tell you that the "holy spirit" was not sent into the world until after Jesus left as per the book of John.

2. Jesus uses a similar language in this chapter found in Matthew 24. He talks about those who "endure to the end. "End" of what?
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Old 12-04-2009, 09:26 PM
 
Location: New York City
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Funny enough though, we don't read of his Disciples enduring all the things he mentioned would happen.
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Old 12-04-2009, 09:28 PM
 
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Originally Posted by katjonjj View Post
That may make sense except that Jesus is warning them about something...

Matt 10:15;17 I tell you the truth, it will be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah on the day of judgment than for that town.... Be on your guard against men; they will hand you over to the local councils and flog you in their synagogues.

So obviously they knew about the day of judgment as it was prophesied long before.
Certainly they new of the day of judgment, but they would not have inferred that Christ meant his coming in that verse was a reference to him returning after he died because they didn't know he was going to die yet ...
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