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The Bible most certainly does condem homosexuality. I would refer you to the following verses:
Gen 19:5
Deut 22:5
Judges 19:22,23
Romans 1:27
1 Cor 6:9
2 Peter 2:10
Jude 1:8
So what if the word 'homosexual' isn't in the Bible ? Neither is 'trinity', but the idea of a triune God is clearly seen in the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Romans chapter 1 is probably the clearest text condeming homosexuality. Although it's not the greatest of all sins, it is a sin and those who practice it will suffer the consequences, just as those who practice any sin will suffer the consequences. The good news is, Jesus will forgive homosexuals and save them if they ask Him. And He will purge them of that sin.
Romans 1:26-27
From my short research it seems that the passage deals more with an immoral behavior among heterosexuals who had converted from Christianity to Paganism. The connection is former Christians returning to Paganism and engaging in sexual orgies and not honoring god
the passage has nothing to do with a homosexual orientation of people who have entered into a loving, committed relationship or same-sex marriage.
The passage deals with immoral behavior among heterosexuals who have converted from Christianity to Paganism and engaged in behavior which is against their nature. There is no real connection between: Former Christians in the first century CE who have returned to Paganism and engaged in sexual orgies, and Persons with a homosexual orientation who have entered into a loving, committed relationship or same-sex marriage
Genesis 19:5
According to the King James Version of the Bible, Genesis 19:5 says: "And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them."
The New International Version translates the same verse without any ambiguity: "They called to Lot, 'Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them.' "
Ya,da´ is a Hebrew verb which is commonly translated as "know." Its meaning is ambiguous. It appears 943 times elsewhere in the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament). Usually it means "to know a fact." In only about a dozen of these cases does it refers to sexual activity; in these instances, the sexual meaning is always obvious. The text generally talks about a man "knowing" a woman and of her conceiving a child as a result of the "knowing." All such references involve heterosexual relationships.
Deut 22:5
Yeah.. this talks about cross dressing.. Not sure how that applies here
Judges 19:22
See Genesis 19:5 and "knowing" someone
1 Cor 6:9
See my post above this post
2 Peter 2:10
I see nothing in this verse about being gay
Jude 1:8
I see nothing in this verse about being gay
If Paul wanted to refer to homosexual behavior, he would have used the word "paiderasste." That was the standard Greek term at the time for sexual behavior between males.
So is it effeminate or soft?
effeminate.
can you show me proof that paiderasste was the standard Greek term of the day? Other than all of the gay websites that state that it was... Can you show me actual proof? Because in the Genisis account that I shared with you, and the way that it was written, it doesn't leave much room for doubt.
Big... This would really be hard to misconstrue...
Genesis 19:4-11
4 Now before they lay down, the men of the city, the men of Sodom, both old and young, all the people from every quarter, surrounded the house. 5 And they called to Lot and said to him, "Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may know them carnally." 6 So Lot went out to them through the doorway, shut the door behind him, 7 and said, "Please, my brethren, do not do so wickedly! 8 See now, I have two daughters who have not known a man; please, let me bring them out to you, and you may do to them as you wish; only do nothing to these men, since this is the reason they have come under the shadow of my roof."
Well when he talks about his daughters not knowing man, and bringing them out so the men could do what they want with them... doesn't really leave much to the imagination. Apparently, he is offering for them to do to his daughters what they are desiring to do with the angels.
Also.. I'm not saying you are wrong for thinking the bible says being a homosexual is wrong. I just don't think, in my opinion, that the evidence points that way. I don't take it as "fact". As such I don't believe that notion.
The question is: For Christians who have been called to not marry, is a "civil union" practical between two brothers-in-christ or two sisters-in-christ since a civil union is not a marriage? Your thoughts.
confusion on my part. did i hear single and married and gay and christian.
my plate is full. doesn't one have to make choices and then live with them?
i mean its tough to be a muslim/christian/jew pacifist zen monk who has joined the seals, know what i mean?
no intention to offend just puzzled.
stephen s
san diego ca
Homosexual Christians do not exist. Those two terms are mutually exclusive. The Bible so clearly condems homosexuality that the question posed is ridiculous.
I mean no personal disrespect to this poster, but this statement is so ignorant I am in shock. Your statement "homosexual Christians do not exist" is just unknowledgable and judgemental in the extreme.
can you show me proof that paiderasste was the standard Greek term of the day? Other than all of the gay websites that state that it was... Can you show me actual proof? Because in the Genisis account that I shared with you, and the way that it was written, it doesn't leave much room for doubt.
Well considering I'm straight I don't really visit gay websites. Maybe you can tell us about your vists to those sites. I can offer you this website instead.
My thought is...so what do monogamous homosexuals do if they want the same benefits and rights under the law as married couples?
Let gay people decide that for themselves.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jeffncandace
As citizens of America, they are entitled to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness just like str8 people. They more than likely wont be happy knowing that they live in a country where should one of them become ill, the other has virtually no rights regarding medical care (as one example).
Not only gay people in this hypothetical scenario, but any deep relationship that is legally binding. Our bestfriend, if we as Americans so choose, should be allowed by law to have rights regarding medical care if the other bestfriend becomes ill.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jeffncandace
Also, regarding your vote on civil unions, how would anyone know, enforce or police the fact that the union stays platonic?
It's not the police's responsibilty to do so in the same manner that infidelity isn't the police's responsibility either. It's the person who's been wronged in the relationship who brings about a plea before the court to dissolve the binding contract.
Last edited by grew-up-3rd-culture; 09-28-2007 at 09:19 AM..
Reason: typo
The question is: For Christians who have been called to not marry, is a "civil union" practical between two brothers-in-christ or two sisters-in-christ since a civil union is not a marriage? Your thoughts.
If both are purely heterosexual and platonic, it's plausible. I would need more information and feedback on the issue.
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Your statement "homosexual Christians do not exist" is just unknowledgable and judgemental in the extreme.
