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Old 10-22-2013, 09:43 AM
 
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When we talk about flavor, says Dr. Beauchamp, three factors come into play. The first two are the most familiar: The tongue and palate sense the primary taste categories of sweet, salty, sour, bitter and umami. And smell receptors at the top of the nose capture molecules floating in the air. For wine, a third factor is also important—an irritation in the mouth, the throat and the nose that some people like and others find unpleasant.

Burning Question: Do People Really Taste Wine Differently? - WSJ.com
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Old 10-22-2013, 01:05 PM
 
Location: Currently living in Reddit
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I don't know if I'd agree taste is genetic. I think it's learned based on what you grow up with. However, it certainly is possible to educate a palate and learn to appreciate tastes that one wasn't brought up with - it's mostly a matter of time and practice.
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Old 10-22-2013, 01:12 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sskink View Post
I don't know if I'd agree taste is genetic. I think it's learned based on what you grow up with. However, it certainly is possible to educate a palate and learn to appreciate tastes that one wasn't brought up with - it's mostly a matter of time and practice.
It's actually almost common knowledge in the chemical senses world nowadays, especially with bitter taste (TAS2R38 gene), that chemosensory perception has a genetic basis. Here are some interesting studies done on supertasters with PROP:
http://scholar.google.com/scholar?hl...%2C21&as_sdtp=
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Old 10-22-2013, 01:49 PM
 
Location: Currently living in Reddit
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Originally Posted by nifear View Post
It's actually almost common knowledge in the chemical senses world nowadays, especially with bitter taste (TAS2R38 gene), that chemosensory perception has a genetic basis. Here are some interesting studies done on supertasters with PROP:
bitter supertaster - Google Scholar
Maybe so. But supertasters aren't the general public, only a small subset.

Is it "genetic" that white Europeans have a higher tolerance for bitter than white Americans? If so, then you win.
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Old 10-22-2013, 01:52 PM
 
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Originally Posted by sskink View Post
Maybe so. But supertasters aren't the general public, only a small subset.

Is it "genetic" that white Europeans have a higher tolerance for bitter than white Americans? If so, then you win.
I'm not sure what that has to do with your general statement of:

Quote:
Originally Posted by sskink View Post
I don't know if I'd agree taste is genetic.






edit:
There also have been several studies on DZ and MZ twins:
http://scholar.google.com/scholar?q=...&as_sdt=0%2C21
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Old 10-22-2013, 02:01 PM
 
Location: Currently living in Reddit
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Originally Posted by nifear View Post
I'm not sure what that has to do with your general statement of:

edit:
There also have been several studies on DZ and MZ twins:
supertaster twins - Google Scholar
I said "I don't know if I'd agree." I think that explains itself. Assigning taste completely to genetics seems to leave some big holes - one of which I pointed out regarding bitters preference. But if science can prove it, so be it.

I'm not a scientist, but if the answer to my point on bitters preference is merely genetics, I'd be impressed as we're only talking 2-3 generations for a rather dramatic fundamental change in sensory development.
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Old 10-22-2013, 02:07 PM
 
1,102 posts, read 1,863,018 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sskink View Post
I said "I don't know if I'd agree." I think that explains itself. Assigning taste completely to genetics seems to leave some big holes - one of which I pointed out regarding bitters preference. But if science can prove it, so be it.

I'm not a scientist, but if the answer to my point on bitters preference is merely genetics, I'd be impressed as we're only talking 2-3 generations for a rather dramatic fundamental change in sensory development.
Not really a just a "preference" to bitter taste, but also perceiving it to be more intense/less pleasant. Anyway, as has been stated previously, chemosensory perception has a genetic basis. It doesn't mean that other variables have some sort of smaller attribution in the matter.
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Old 10-22-2013, 02:24 PM
 
Location: Currently living in Reddit
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Quote:
Originally Posted by nifear View Post
Not really a just a "preference" to bitter taste, but also perceiving it to be more intense/less pleasant. Anyway, as has been stated previously, chemosensory perception has a genetic basis. It doesn't mean that other variables have some sort of smaller attribution in the matter.
An example of "other variables".I'm not linking to this to argue with you. I just find it really interesting.

FWIW, I've been professionally accredited as a sensory judge in coffee competitions. If you ask 10 different tasters at the same table who are all trained similarly, calibrated to each other and who share the same terminology, to give you their top three "flavor notes" from a specific microlot of coffee, you'll often get 20+ different answers. So when you see "raisins" or "berries" as a flavor note on a bag of coffee (or a bottle of wine), that's most often simply a plurarity of a tasting panel, not a unanimous opinion. YMMV. It's also why a number of label descriptors default to "nuts", "tree fruit" or "citrus" as opposed to being specific.

Taste perception is a fascinating topic. And IMO we're far from knowing all the answers.
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Old 10-22-2013, 03:36 PM
MJ7
 
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i agree its technically genetic (but only in a raw bare bones way...receptors etc.), but i also believe one can discover or learn to taste things differently over time. weve all started out with some cheap beer, wine, alcohol, and weve all learned what we like most from that point on, exploring different types.

i personally really enjoy new zealand wines, all of them have a similar note (that earthy taste is subtle but real). then you can start exploring grapes from around new zealand and sensing their differences. ENVIRONMENT plays a huge role.
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