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No it has not been paid by the person just receiving their gain.
By your standard, stocks could only be taxed once and never again despite being traded.
Used products are taxed. In all of these cases it's the first instance of taxation for that individual.
You are a clueless immature child.
Grow up.
The death tax isn't taxing the gain though. It's taxing a holding. Continuing to own what your spouse or parent had title to before they died is not a gain. There is no gain, until the asset is sold. When the inheritors of an asset sell that asset, they will then be taxed on the gain. And I don't think anyone objects to that. Or are you advocating that once the death tax is paid no further taxes are ever due on the appreciation of the asset?
I will point out here that there is a loophole currently that can be closed, in the interest of fairness. I believe that currently, one is allowed to declare the value of the asset on the day it is inherited as the cost basis. Change the rule so that the original cost basis of the asset must be used when computing the inheritors gain.
Why isnt what your parents earned, yours? What gives the government a superior entitlement over the offsprings of people with money, regardless of the amount?
Think about how many times a car gets taxed while changing owners. I guess we have to tax something but some things seem more like robbery than others.
You can play your childish games with the "death" tax, but that's not how the estate tax works.
If someone gains something, they are taxed for it, just like in countless other transactions. Period.
the way the estate tax works is when the person dies, the government steps in and takes 35% of the estate off the top, BEFORE the assets are distributed to the heirs. and that is the problem with the estate tax. if you want to tax the heirs for the "income" they receive from the estate, that is a different deal.
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